In the ancient days, "The main argument for God is the first cause: there must be something which originates motion, and this something must itself be unmoved" - wrote Bertrand Russell[History of Western Philosophy, p.180]. Thus God was the unmoved mover in the time of Aristotle. He was placed in the ninth heaven, the eighth was for the stars, other seven for the Ptolemaic planets. During Pythagoras's time, only seven heavens were said to exist. However, about fifty 'unmoved movers' were discovered with the consequent demise of the theory.
Religious scriptures describe 'Heaven' as a sinless world in the afterlife, filled with heavenly amenities, such as wine, hoories, etc. Such description tells me that scriptures were emanated from the human imaginations. This description of heaven creates a fallacy with the formlessness of the God.
In most religions, especially in Islam and Christianity, God is formless, so - no one can see Him even though He is present everywhere (Omnipresent). As per Islam and Christianity, even the most pious ones among us can't see Him also in this world. One can see Him only in a formlessness state. Since we attain formless state after death, therefore, we can see God in our afterlife only. Quite a logical argument, but this logic falls apart when we think about everything else (such as wine, virgins, etc.) we will enjoy in the God's paradise (Heaven). To enjoy all those amenities of heaven, we will need to attain a solid form. How can we have both forms? If we can exist in both forms, so should God. And, if God can exist in both forms, most pious ones among us should be able see Him in this world also. Isn't this a fallacy?
Jiten Roy
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-Beatrice Hall [pseudonym: S.G. Tallentyre], 190
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